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GST 212 Past Questions and Answers

Title: GST 212 Past Questions and Answers URL: https://studentsdash.com/gst-212-past-questions-and-answers/ -------------------------------------------------- In this post, we’re sharing GST 212 Past Questions and Answers. Make sure you go through them carefully. If you have any questions, feel free to reach out to us on WhatsApp at 07075012541. How to Write GST Quiz on Jetmav Easily and Pass | How I Did It JOIN STUDENTSDASH WHATSAPP CHANNEL FOR ALL FREE MATERIALS AND INFO CLICK HERE TO JOIN STUDENTSDASH TELEGRAM CHANNEL FOR ALL FREE MATERIALS AND INFO ======================= EBSU GST 212 ANSWERS What is philosophy mainly concerned with? A. Counting numbers B. Asking basic questions about life and knowledge C. Designing machines D. Studying weather Answer: B Which branch of philosophy studies reality and being? A. Ethics B. Aesthetics C. Metaphysics D. Logic Answer: C Which branch of philosophy studies knowledge and belief? A. Epistemology B. Ontology C. Axiology D. Rhetoric Answer: A Axiology deals with: A. The nature of numbers B. Values such as ethics and beauty C. Physical laws D. Formal proofs Answer: B Which method of philosophy focuses on clear analysis of language and ideas? A. Analytic method B. Dialectical method C. Descriptive method D. Empirical method Answer: A Dialectical method involves: A. Ignoring opposing views B. Discussion of opposite views to reach truth C. Only using math D. Memorizing facts Answer: B What is a key problem in the mind-body debate? A. Whether life exists on Mars B. How mind and body relate (dualism vs materialism) C. Which language is best D. How to build computers Answer: B Free will vs determinism asks whether: A. People can act freely or everything is caused B. Time moves backwards C. Animals can speak D. Numbers are infinite Answer: A Which philosopher is famous for “I think, therefore I am” (Descartes)? A. Plato B. Aristotle C. Descartes D. Hume Answer: C What does “valid argument” mean in logic? A. Conclusions are relevant to feelings B. If premises are true, conclusion must be true C. Premises are many in number D. The argument uses complex words Answer: B What makes a valid argument also sound? A. It has a long conclusion B. Its premises are true and it is valid C. It is hard to understand D. It uses diagrams Answer: B What is a fallacy? A. A true statement B. A mistake in reasoning or argument C. A scientific law D. A type of culture Answer: B Which fallacy attacks the person instead of the argument? A. Slippery slope B. Ad hominem C. Straw man D. False cause Answer: B Straw man fallacy is: A. Misrepresenting someone’s view to easily attack it B. Building a structure from straw C. Agreeing with everything D. Giving a correct summary Answer: A False dilemma fallacy does what? A. Offers only two choices when there are more B. Gives many options C. Uses numbers D. Proves a fact Answer: A Which is a propositional connective meaning “and”? A. ∨ (or) B. → (if…then) C. ∧ (and) D. ¬ (not) Answer: C Which connective represents “not” in logic? A. ∧ B. ∨ C. → D. ¬ Answer: D A tautology is a statement that is: A. Always false B. Always true C. True sometimes only D. Never meaningful Answer: B A contradiction is a statement that is: A. Always false B. Sometimes true C. Always true D. Never written down Answer: A In propositional logic, “If P then Q” is symbolized by: A. P ∧ Q B. P ∨ Q C. P → Q D. ¬P Answer: C The scope of philosophy includes: A. Only science facts B. Big questions about life, knowledge, values, and reality C. Only math problems D. Only laws of physics Answer: B What is “ontology”? A. Study of being and existence B. Study of cooking C. Study of numbers D. Study of weather Answer: A Which theory says only physical things exist? A. Dualism B. Idealism C. Materialism D. Platonism Answer: C Which view says reality is ultimately mental or spiritual? A. Materialism B. Idealism C. Behaviorism D. Empiricism Answer: B What is skepticism in epistemology? A. Strong belief in everything B. Doubt about knowledge claims C. Liking new ideas D. Study of stars Answer: B “Justification” in knowledge means: A. Hiding the reason B. Giving good reasons for belief C. Forgetting facts D. Making art Answer: B Which is a branch of axiology? A. Epistemology B. Ethics and Aesthetics C. Logic D. Physics Answer: B Ethics studies: A. Right and wrong actions B. Shapes and colors C. How to calculate interest D. Music notes Answer: A Aesthetics studies: A. Moral duty B. Beauty and art C. Logic rules D. Agricultural methods Answer: B What is “substance” in metaphysics? A. Non-existent thing B. That which exists independently and bears properties C. A chemical only D. A logical fallacy Answer: B “Accident” in metaphysics refers to: A. Unexpected event only in cars B. A property that depends on something else (non-essential) C. The main essence of a thing D. The cause of everything Answer: B The “mind-body problem” asks: A. Whether mind and body are the same or different B. Whether bodies float C. How to lift weights D. The speed of light Answer: A Dualism claims: A. Mind and body are the same substance B. Mind and body are two different substances C. Only matter exists D. Only ideas exist Answer: B Materialist view of mind says: A. Mind is purely physical processes in the brain B. Mind is a separate spiritual soul C. Mind can fly D. Mind is a mathematical formula Answer: A Which is a central problem in philosophy of religion often listed under “problem of evil”? A. Why do people sing? B. How can an all-powerful, all-good God allow evil? C. How to solve math puzzles? D. Why seasons change? Answer: B Causality concerns: A. The relation of cause and effect B. Musical rhythm C. Political power only D. Ethical rules Answer: A What does “truth” mean in correspondence theory? A. Agreement with one’s feelings B. Agreement between statement and reality C. Agreement with popular opinion D. Being hard to say Answer: B What is the coherence theory of truth? A. Truth is what agrees with other true beliefs in a system B. Truth is always simple C. Truth depends on taste D. Truth is random Answer: A Which problem is central to epistemology? A. How to plant trees B. How we can know anything with certainty C. How to dance D. How to build houses Answer: B What is “a priori” knowledge? A. Knowledge from experience only B. Knowledge independent of experience (e.g., math) C. Knowledge found in books only D. Knowledge after experiments Answer: B What is “a posteriori” knowledge? A. Knowledge from taste B. Knowledge gained from experience C. Knowledge of future events only D. Knowledge that cannot be stated Answer: B Which thinker is linked with existentialism and the idea of “absurd”? A. Camus B. Plato C. Newton D. Locke Answer: A “Authenticity” in existentialism means: A. Being true to social roles only B. Living honestly according to your own values and choices C. Copying others D. Avoiding choices Answer: B What is “angst” in existential thought? A. Joy B. Deep anxiety about freedom and meaning C. A scientific law D. A musical note Answer: B Which philosopher wrote about “being-in-the-world” and mortality (Heidegger)? A. Hume B. Heidegger C. Kant D. Mill Answer: B What does “the absurd” mean for Camus? A. Life is always easy B. The conflict between human search for meaning and a meaningless world C. Everything is clear and logical D. Science solves all problems Answer: B In argument structure, a premise is: A. The final claim only B. A reason given to support a conclusion C. A question D. A secret code Answer: B What is the conclusion of an argument? A. The main claim the premises aim to support B. A side note C. A list of examples D. A mistaken belief Answer: A “Begging the question” fallacy occurs when: A. An argument assumes what it is trying to prove B. You ask too many questions C. You tell a story D. You use data Answer: A Slippery slope fallacy claims: A. Small step will lead to extreme, unlikely consequences without proof B. Slippery roads cause accidents C. All arguments are valid D. Opponents agree quickly Answer: A Appeal to authority fallacy is when: A. You use a correct scientific method B. You accept a claim simply because an authority said it, without reasons C. You cite many sources correctly D. You use logic only Answer: B Hasty generalization fallacy is: A. Drawing broad conclusions from small sample B. Careful research C. Making long arguments only D. Using many examples Answer: A What is an argument form? A. The physical paper used B. The pattern of logical connection between premises and conclusion C. The opinion of the writer D. The color of the book cover Answer: B Which is NOT a logical connective? A. And B. Or C. Because (causal connective in everyday language) D. If…then Answer: C In formal logic, “P ∨ Q” is true when: A. Both P and Q are false B. At least one of P or Q is true C. Both are false only D. Neither P nor Q exist Answer: B In truth tables, conjunction (P ∧ Q) is true only when: A. Both P and Q are true B. At least one is true C. Both are false D. None exist Answer: A Conditional (P → Q) is false only when: A. P true and Q false B. P false and Q true C. Both true D. Both false Answer: A What is a propositional variable? A. A number in algebra B. A symbol that stands for a simple proposition (like P, Q) C. A type of fallacy D. A color name Answer: B Which is a method for testing validity in propositional logic? A. Making a list of songs B. Using truth tables C. Counting words D. Asking feelings Answer: B What is symbolic logic mainly used for? A. Poetry only B. Representing arguments clearly with symbols C. Drawing maps D. Cooking recipes Answer: B What does “soundness” require of an argument? A. Valid form only B. True premises and valid form C. Many premises D. Unknown premises Answer: B Which describes inductive reasoning? A. If premises true, conclusion must be true B. Premises provide probable support for conclusion C. Always yields certainty D. Is never used in science Answer: B Which describes deductive reasoning? A. Moves from general rules to specific conclusion with necessity B. Always uncertain C. Based on feelings only D. Never used in math Answer: A What is an example of a normative question in ethics? A. What is the capital of Nigeria? B. Is lying sometimes wrong? C. How tall is the building? D. What is 2+2? Answer: B Utilitarianism judges actions by: A. Their beauty B. The happiness or utility they produce for most people C. Traditions only D. Authority commands only Answer: B Deontology (Kantian ethics) focuses on: A. Consequences only B. Duty and rules regardless of consequences C. Making more money D. Being popular Answer: B Which term means “study of argument forms and inference”? A. Aesthetics B. Logic C. Biology D. Economics Answer: B A valid argument with false premises can have: A. A false conclusion only B. A true or false conclusion; validity concerns form only C. No conclusion D. Only true premises Answer: B Which is a simple fallacy of relevance? A. Affirming the consequent B. Ad hominem C. Modus ponens D. Contrapositive Answer: B Affirming the consequent is a logical mistake that has this form: A. If P then Q; Q; therefore P B. If P then Q; P; therefore Q C. P and Q; therefore P D. Not P; therefore not Q Answer: A Modus ponens is a valid form: A. If P then Q; P; therefore Q B. If P then Q; Q; therefore P C. P or Q; therefore R D. Not Q; therefore not P Answer: A Modus tollens is: A. If P then Q; not Q; therefore not P B. If P then Q; Q; therefore P C. P and Q; therefore P D. P; therefore P or Q Answer: A What is the aim of critical thinking? A. Accept ideas quickly B. Evaluate reasons and evidence carefully C. Avoid all questions D. Memorize facts only Answer: B Which is a cognitive bias that affects reasoning? A. Neutrality B. Confirmation bias (favoring information that fits your beliefs) C. Mathematical proof D. Logical deduction Answer: B What is the “principle of charity” in argument analysis? A. Interpret opponents’ arguments in their strongest reasonable form B. Ignore opposing views C. Attack everything you read D. Always disagree Answer: A What is “phenomenology” concerned with? A. The catalog of species B. The study of experience as it appears to consciousness C. The history of wars D. Counting stars Answer: B Which is a practical application of logic? A. Making soup B. Evaluating everyday reasoning and decisions C. Painting only D. Planting crops Answer: B Which is a characteristic of existentialist thought? A. Emphasis on abstract laws only B. Focus on individual freedom, choice, and responsibility C. Always following tradition without question D. Scientific method only Answer: B What is “authorship” in philosophy of language? (Trick: not core here) A. The person who writes a book B. How language links speakers and meaning (context-dependent) C. The sound of a bell D. The taste of food Answer: B What does “philosophical analysis” aim to do? A. Break down concepts into clear parts and meanings B. Paint pictures C. Bake bread D. Build machines Answer: A Which statement is a philosophical definition for “knowledge” in the classical view? A. True belief with no reason B. Justified true belief C. Random guess D. Strong emotion Answer: B What did Gettier problems show about “justified true belief”? A. It is always sufficient for knowledge B. There can be justified true belief without knowledge (counterexamples exist) C. It is never true D. It is a mathematical formula Answer: B What is “pragmatism” in philosophy? A. Focus on ideas by their practical effects and usefulness B. Only using logic symbols C. Rejecting action D. Believing myths only Answer: A Which is an example of an analytic statement? A. “All bachelors are unmarried men.” (true by meaning) B. “The sky is green.” C. “Water boils at 500°C.” D. “Cats are dogs.” Answer: A Which is an example of a synthetic statement? A. “All squares have four sides.” B. “The sun rises in the east.” (empirical fact) C. “A triangle has three sides.” D. “All bachelors are unmarried.” Answer: B What is the role of definitions in philosophy? A. To confuse students B. To clarify meaning and reduce ambiguity in arguments C. To write long essays only D. To remove all questions Answer: B In symbolic logic, “¬(P ∨ Q)” is equivalent to: A. ¬P ∧ ¬Q (by De Morgan’s law) B. P ∧ Q C. P ∨ Q D. ¬P ∨ ¬Q Answer: A Which is an example of an argument form used to show validity? A. Circular reasoning only B. Modus ponens and modus tollens C. Ad hominem D. Straw man Answer: B What is “practical reason”? A. Reason used to make decisions about actions and goals B. Reason used only in math C. Reason that never helps choices D. Reason that is purely emotional Answer: A What do we mean by “moral relativism”? A. There is one single moral code for everyone B. Moral truth depends on culture or person, not absolute standards C. Only one action is moral always D. Morality equals science only Answer: B Which question belongs to philosophy of death and mortality? A. How to prepare food B. What is death and what makes death bad for someone? C. How fast is light? D. What is the capital of France? Answer: B What is “existential freedom”? A. Freedom to choose meaning and act despite limits and anxiety B. Freedom from paying taxes C. Freedom without responsibility D. Freedom without consequences Answer: A What does “moral justification” require? A. No reasons at all B. Good reasons or principles showing an action is right C. Popularity only D. Being traditional only Answer: B In logic, a “counterexample” shows: A. That something is definitely true B. That a general claim or argument form is false or invalid C. That arguments are always valid D. That premises are always true Answer: B Which is true of a valid deductive argument? A. True premises guarantee the truth of the conclusion B. True premises never affect the conclusion C. It must have false premises D. It always uses numbers Answer: A What is “philosophical counseling” in brief? A. Giving advice based on philosophical reflection to help life problems B. Medical practice only C. Building houses only D. Teaching math only Answer: A Which is a use of logic in daily life? A. Making clear decisions, spotting weak arguments, and checking claims B. Only writing poems C. Only doing art D. Only dreaming Answer: A Which is an example of an informal logical fallacy? A. Modus ponens B. Ad populum (appeal to the people) C. Modus tollens D. Contraposition Answer: B What is the main concern in the “problem of being”? A. How to cook rice B. What it means for something to exist and what kinds of things there are C. How to build software D. How to win arguments Answer: B Which method is descriptive in philosophy? A. Tells how people actually think and use concepts (describing, not judging) B. Forces people to accept rules only C. Makes absolute moral laws only D. Destroys all views Answer: A Chat Us on WhatsApp Looking for an easier way to access past questions, study materials, and more? The Studentsdash App is here to make your academic life simpler! Click the link below to download and start using it today. DOWNLOAD STUDENTSDASH APP

GST 301 Past Questions and Answers Updated

Title: GST 301 Past Questions and Answers Updated URL: https://studentsdash.com/gst-301-past-questions-and-answers-updated/ -------------------------------------------------- Section 1: A business opportunity simply means _________. A. Any opportunity to make money B. Any chance to get into government C. A chance to achieve breakthrough financially D. Under-served needs that can be served at a profit Answer: D The first step in business creation is _________. A. Feasibility study B. Identifying sources of fund C. Planning D. Opportunity search and identification Answer: D Business opportunity can be identified by: A. Discussion with peers B. Newspaper advertisement C. Careful scanning of the environment D. All of the above Answer: D Which of the following government activities create business opportunities? i. Building new infrastructure ii. Policies iii. New laws iv. Media propaganda v. Divide and rule A. i & iv B. i, ii, & iii C. All of the above D. None of the above Answer: B One of the following is NOT part of a feasibility report: A. Profit sharing ratio B. Business name C. Business operation issues D. Vision and mission Answer: A In a feasibility report, the technical environment takes into account the following EXCEPT: A. Raw material availability B. Infrastructures C. Production method D. Structure and process Answer: D Political and economic issues in a feasibility report are discussed under: A. Introduction B. Executive summary C. Business environment D. Business ideology Answer: C The following are contents of a feasibility report EXCEPT: A. Manpower issues B. Business funding plan C. Marketing issues D. Divestment Answer: D An entrepreneur’s priority in feasibility analysis is _________. A. Funding B. Possibility of running the venture C. Business registration D. Possibility of expansion Answer: B In feasibility analysis, there is need to check properly _________. A. Profitability of the business B. Business connections C. Government contract D. Economy of scales Answer: A One of the easiest tools to analyze business profitability is _________. A. Simple interest B. Breakeven analysis C. Risk analysis D. Broke business analysis Answer: B It is said that those who fail to plan must _________. A. Have the idea in their head B. Have vision C. Plan to fail D. Have objective Answer: C Planning helps in predicting _________ by organizing thoughts. A. Income B. Product price C. The future D. Business success Answer: C __________ is regarded as a master plan that guides resource allocation. A. Plan B. Strategy C. Management D. Objectives Answer: B During planning, once goals are determined, the entrepreneur must _________. A. Swing into action B. Establish strategic means of achieving them C. Identify the source of fund D. Know his customers Answer: B The design and re-design of a firm is based on _________. A. Goals B. Targets C. Objectives D. Planning Answer: D The following are focus areas of a business plan EXCEPT _________. A. Business forecasting B. Investment analysis C. Sales management D. None of the above Answer: B One of the following is covered in a business plan: A. Capitalism B. Legal issues in business C. Socialism D. Consumerism Answer: B The location of the business is found in the _________ section of a business plan. A. Introduction B. Production plan C. Business description D. Schedule plan Answer: A The response to competitors’ threat is explained in the _________ section of a business plan. A. Business description B. Risk plan C. Financial plan D. Production plan Answer: A SBU stands for _________. A. Strong business unit B. Strategic business unit C. Standard business unit D. Standalone business unit Answer: B SWOT stands for _________. A. Strength-Weakness-Opportunity-Threat B. Strength-Weakness-Organisation-Threat C. Strength-Witness-Organisation-Threat D. Strategic-Weakness-Organisation-Threat Answer: A Complete the 4 Ps: Products, ________, ________, and Place. A. Plan, Price B. Promotion, Process C. Policy, Pricing D. Promotion, Pricing Answer: D The decision whether the business will involve manufacturing or service provision is contained in the _________ section of a business plan. A. Introduction B. Marketing C. Production D. SWOT Answer: C For a startup, one of the best sources of funding is _________. A. Personal savings B. Loan from government C. Loan from roadside creditors D. Loan from microfinance bank Answer: A Before accepting a loan, an entrepreneur should compare the interest with _________. A. Cash flow B. Business worth C. Expected profit D. Balance sheet Answer: C Loan with high interest rate can _________. A. Enhance business growth B. Increase business awareness C. Increase sales D. Keep the entrepreneur in perpetual debt Answer: D In the business creation cycle, the first step is _________. A. Plan B. Launch the business C. Pre-entry SWOT analysis D. Opportunity grabbing Answer: C Business ideas can emanate from the following EXCEPT _________. A. Past experience B. Competitors’ product C. Information from online D. All of the above Answer: D One’s strength represents _________. A. Unique gift and fears B. Unique gift, talent and skills C. Unique gift, past experience and extravagance D. All of the above Answer: B Weakness stems from _________. A. The individual B. Friends C. Environment D. Government Answer: A Threat to a business emanates from _________. A. Socialism B. Government only C. School attended D. Environment Answer: D Creativity, lateral thinking, problem solving, team building skill are examples of _________. A. Innovation B. High intelligence quotient C. Entrepreneurial skills D. Organisation abilities Answer: C ROI stands for _________. A. Risk on Internet B. Risk on investment C. Return on investment D. Return on interest Answer: C IRR stands for _________. A. Internal risk review B. Internal rate of return C. Interest rate return D. Internal risk rating Answer: B Another name for feasibility report is _________. A. Bankability report B. Profitability report C. Probability report D. Production report Answer: A Section 2: According to ________, “not to innovate and think creatively is to die.” A. Freedom (1997) B. Freewill (1997) C. Fredman (1997) D. Freeman (1997) Answer: D ________ is the beginning of all innovations. A. Profit motive B. Necessity C. Creative thinking D. Straightforward thinking Answer: C Pick the correct sequence: A. Creative thinking → Ideation → Innovation → Imagination B. Innovation → Imagination → Ideation → Creative thinking C. Imagination → Creative thinking → Ideation → Innovation D. Creative thinking → Ideation → Imagination → Innovation Answer: D ________ associated entrepreneurs with the spirit of creative destruction. A. Peter Drucker B. Max Weber C. Schumpeter D. David Hume Answer: C The critical insights of creative geniuses typically occur at _________. A. Eventful time and place B. Expected time and place C. Set time and place D. Unexpected time and place Answer: D To the critical thinker, the period between the initial flush of idea and the burst of serendipity is called _________. A. Time lapse B. Time lag C. Incubation D. Incubator Answer: C Creative thinking involves visualizing images in one’s _________. A. Mind B. Heart C. Brain D. Eyes Answer: A During creative thinking, mental images which represent sketches of a solution to a problem are often seen by the person’s _________. A. Mental eyes B. Neurons C. Mind’s eyes D. Central nervous system Answer: C ________ may spark the creative thinker to go into idea generation. A. The decision to make profit B. The identification of a problem C. The desire to be famous D. The identification of a product Answer: B The concentration of effort on images that flit through our brains as we focus on problems to find solutions is called _________. A. Visioning B. Dreaming C. Imagination D. Hallucination Answer: C Creative thinking may also be referred to as _________. A. Inside-the-box thinking B. Concrete thinking C. Convergent thinking D. All of the above Answer: D Creative thinking is opposed to _________. A. Outside-the-box thinking B. Abstract thinking C. Vertical thinking D. Lateral thinking Answer: C Which of these does the entrepreneur abhor? A. Status quo B. Abstract thinking C. Creative thinking D. Imagination Answer: A ________ is the foundation of all innovations. A. Demand B. Consumers C. Creativity D. Infrastructure Answer: C By being innovative, entrepreneurs seek to add _________. A. Profit B. Value C. Effectiveness D. Efficiency Answer: B In the world of entrepreneurs, there can be no invention without _________. A. Profit motive B. Money C. Thinking ability D. Creativity Answer: D Can creativity, innovation, or entrepreneurial traits be socialized into people through education, training, and teaching? A. Absolutely not B. Maybe C. Certainly D. All of the above Answer: C The end result of creative thinking is _________. A. Self-development B. More profit C. Innovation D. Efficiency Answer: C Which of these traits hardly applies to entrepreneurship? A. Flexibility B. Playfulness C. Intuitiveness D. Pessimism Answer: D When entrepreneurs take risks, they are being _________. A. Curious B. Daring C. Indexical D. Intuitive Answer: B Which action is sandwiched between ideation and innovation? A. Imagination B. Creative thinking C. Experimentation D. Rumination Answer: A Those who have entrepreneurial spirit must abhor challenges. A. True B. Most probably true C. False D. Most probably false Answer: C Which of these acronyms represent the four innovative styles? A. VEME B. VEEM C. VMEE D. MEVE Answer: B The idea that we all have measures of multiple intelligences and some aspects of the creative and innovative spirit needed for entrepreneurship is attributed to _________. A. Gardener (1999) B. Gerdner (1999) C. Gardner (1999) D. Gardiner (1999) Answer: C Who among the following would you regard as an entrepreneur? A. An importer B. A shop owner C. A barber who offers home service to clients D. A sales representative Answer: C The introduction of a new good, product, or service, or a significant improvement in quality of an existing good, product, or service is referred to as _________. A. Efficiency B. Effectiveness C. Creative destruction value D. Change Answer: C Who of these was NOT an inventor? A. Archimedes B. Newton C. Aristotle D. Descartes Answer: C The driving force of an entrepreneur is to _________. A. Make profit B. Make a difference C. Produce goods and services D. Achieve efficiency Answer: B When an entrepreneur has identified an opportunity _________. A. He tells his friends about it B. He organizes resources to explore it C. He thanks God D. He documents it Answer: B The ability to apply creative solutions to problems and opportunities to enhance people’s lives or enrich society is known as _________. A. Creativity B. Efficiency C. Transformation D. Innovation Answer: D Which of these is NOT a barrier to creativity and innovation? A. Searching for the one ‘right’ answer B. Blindly following the rules C. Focusing on being logical D. None of the above Answer: D The innovation and creativity barriers can be countered through _________. A. Knowledge accumulation B. Idea or ‘eureka’ experience C. Incubation process D. All of the above Answer: D Entrepreneurs do all the following, EXCEPT _________. A. Introduce new goods B. Shut new markets C. Re-organize industries D. Open new sources of supply Answer: B The creation of a new product, service, or process is referred to as _________. A. Invention B. Extension C. Duplication D. Synthesis Answer: A The expansion of a product, service, or process is known as _________. A. Duplication B. Invention C. Extension D. Synthesis Answer: C The replication of an already existing product, service, or process is known as _________. A. Invention B. Synthesis C. Extension D. Duplication Answer: D The combination of existing concepts and factors into a new formulation is described as _________. A. Duplication B. Synthesis C. Extension D. Innovation Answer: B Which of these is NOT a characteristic of entrepreneurs? A. Tenacity B. Self-belief C. Adherence to laid-down procedure D. Rule-breaking Answer: C Which would give the entrepreneur greater satisfaction? A. Working for self B. Making profit C. Striving for efficiency D. Being effective Answer: A The entrepreneur has the following attributes, EXCEPT _________. A. He is passionate about his goals B. He has a spirit of adventure C. He lacks confidence but may be self-reliant D. He is goal oriented Answer: C The quality that entrepreneurs need upon encountering failure is _________. A. Confidence B. Tenacity C. Cautiousness D. Pessimism Answer: B In-depth knowledge of the market and industry garnered through months or years of investigation fills the entrepreneur with _________. A. Self-determination B. Tenacity C. Confidence D. Passion Answer: C To the general public, change is often frightening and something to be avoided; but to the entrepreneur, change comes with _________. A. Uncertainties B. Opportunities C. Experiences D. Pain Answer: B Which entrepreneurial trait entails that entrepreneurs must have more than just a casual interest in the proposed business? A. Courage B. Confidence C. Passion D. Determination Answer: C Which technique do entrepreneurs employ to see the entire business environment and industry to formulate the larger picture? A. Searching the environment B. Scanning the environment C. Skimming the environment D. Exposing the environment Answer: B Which would you say is a disadvantage of entrepreneurship? A. Autonomy B. Financial control C. Challenge of a start-up D. Personal sacrifices Answer: D An advantage of entrepreneurship includes _________. A. Little margin of error B. Burden of responsibility C. Financial control D. Personal sacrifices Answer: C An entrepreneur would need a venture capitalist when he lacks _________. A. Ideas B. Motivation C. Fund D. Security Answer: C An entrepreneur who has many interests at a time is said to be _________. A. Versatile B. Flexible C. Sociable D. Adventuresome Answer: A Which element follows visioning in the four innovation styles? A. Experimentation B. Exploration C. Modification D. Standardization Answer: B Section 3: The popular chemistry/IUPAC symbol Pb is for a popular plumbing element called _________. A. “L”-Angle B. Leg p. C. Lithium D. Lead Answer: D Ancient initiator of plumbing terms was _________. A. Great Britain B. Egypt C. Greek D. Latin Answer: D Plumbing was a derivative of _________. A. Plumunology B. Plumbate C. Plumbum D. Plumbeg Answer: C The characteristic of the original metal of choice for plumbing work was its _________. A. Smoothness B. Softness C. Slimness D. Solderingness Answer: B Ancient plumbing pipes were made of _________. A. Iron B. Plastic C. Lead D. Copper Answer: C Modern plumbing pipes are made of _________. A. Iron B. Plastic C. Lead D. Copper Answer: B The best definition of plumbing is that it is a skilled trade of working with _________. A. Piper & tubes B. Pipes & rubbers C. Piper & plastics D. Pipes & pins Answer: A Domestic plumbing systems usually serve one _________. A. Major road B. Street C. Estate D. Building Answer: D A person that maintains or installs plumbing systems is known as _________. A. Maintainer B. Installer C. Piper & plastics D. Plumber Answer: D The person whose plumbing system is installed or maintained is known as _________. A. Maintainer B. Installer C. Client D. Plumber Answer: C Plumbing system that provides drinking water is called _________. A. Fuel & gas system B. Septic system C. Traps, drains & system vents D. Potable cold & hot water supply Answer: D Plumbing system that enables water closet work is called _________. A. Fuel & gas system B. Septic system C. Traps, drains & system vents D. Potable cold & hot water supply Answer: B NNPC utilizes the type of plumbing system called _________. A. Fuel & gas system B. Septic system C. Traps, drains & system vents D. Potable cold & hot water supply Answer: A Fumes and poisonous gases are expelled with the aid of plumbing system called _________. A. Fuel & gas system B. Septic system C. Traps, drains & system vents D. Potable cold & hot water supply Answer: C Type of plumbing system most important to urban dwellers is _________. A. Fuel & gas system B. Septic system C. Traps, drains & system vents D. Wash hand basin Answer: B Type of plumbing system most lucrative is _________. A. Fuel & gas system B. Septic system C. Traps, drains & system vents D. Potable cold & hot water supply Answer: A Basic and most fundamental plumbing material is the _________. A. Piper B. Tube C. Iron D. Lead Answer: A The thin-walled flexible plumbing material is the _________. A. Pipe B. Tube C. Iron D. Lead Answer: B One of the following is NOT a plumbing material: A. Sealing agent B. Gum C. Hack saw D. Glue Answer: C Other plumbing materials include the following EXCEPT _________. A. Solvents B. Compression fittings C. Tubes D. Gases Answer: D Plumber’s “chief tool” is the _________. A. 13/14-spanner B. Hack saw C. Wrench D. Drill Answer: C Plumbing tools generally used for boring holes is the _________. A. 13/14-spanner B. Hack saw C. Wrench D. Drill Answer: D Plumbing tools used for cutting pipe is _________. A. 13/14 spanner B. Hack saw C. Wrench D. Drill Answer: B Plumbing tool used for loosening medium-sized bolts and nuts is the _________. A. 13/14 spanner B. Hack saw C. Wrench D. Drill Answer: A Plumbing equipment for removing/sieving particles from water is called _________. A. Water meter B. Water pump C. Water gauge D. Water filter Answer: D For lifting great volume of water to a highly elevated cistern a plumber requires _________. A. Water meter B. Water pump C. Water gauge D. Water filter Answer: B For determining the volume of water consumed by a consumer, the plumber needs _________. A. Water meter B. Water pump C. Water heater D. Water filter Answer: A Plumbing equipment for establishing water level in a cistern is called _________. A. Water meter B. Water pump C. Water gauge D. Water filter Answer: C The job of connecting various plumbing components one to another is usually done by _________. A. Plumbing equipment B. Plumbing appliances C. Plumbing tools D. Plumbing fittings Answer: D To connect plumbing pipes in a straight line you need a ________ connection. A. Tee B. Leg C. Cross D. Union Answer: D In most cases you need a ________ to connect three plumbing pipes together. A. Tee B. Leg C. Cross D. Union Answer: A Layman’s definition for plumbing fixture is _________. A. Plumbing fitting B. Plumbing appliances C. Plumbing equipment D. Plumbing filter Answer: B Without plumbing fixtures in your house the benefits of plumbing science and technology will be _________. A. Near to you B. Close to you C. Far from you D. Down to you Answer: C Plumbing fixture installed for the purposes of human faeces convenience is called _________. A. Urinals B. Water closet C. Bath tub D. Bidet Answer: B Plumbing fixtures for female genitalia wash is called _________. A. Urinals B. Water closet C. Bath tub D. Bidet Answer: D Plumbing fixture for human bladder movement convenience is called _________. A. Urinals B. Water closet C. Bath tub D. Bidet Answer: A Plumbing fixture for human body cleansing/washing is called _________. A. Urinals B. Water closet C. Bath tub D. Bidet Answer: C Plumbing utility for private water storage is known as _________. A. Water heater B. Kitchen sink C. Water cistern D. Wash hand basin Answer: C Plumbing utility for occasional hot bath is known as _________. A. Water heater B. Kitchen sink C. Water cistern D. Wash hand basin Answer: A Plumbing fixture installed in the kitchen for washing pots & plates is known as _________. A. Water heater B. Kitchen sink C. Water cistern D. Wash hand basin Answer: B After utilizing the services of water-closet, there is always the immediate need to utilize the services of another plumbing fixture called _________. A. Water heater B. Kitchen sink C. Water cistern D. Wash hand basin Answer: D Difference between showers and bathtubs utilization is that tubs allow for _________. A. Sitting B. Sleeping C. Lying D. Standing Answer: C Plumbing installation must be made along with the building construction to avoid walls _________. A. Construction B. Fencing C. Breakage D. Finishing Answer: C For cold water indirect system, cold water is supplied to all outlets from a cold water _________. A. Pump B. Valve C. Cistern D. Gate Answer: C Water density decreases as its temperature _________. A. Decreases B. Closes C. Stands D. Rises Answer: D First physical science law to be obeyed while executing water installation states that water is subject to force of gravity and will always find its _________. A. Own level B. Own weight C. Own volume D. Own height Answer: A For cold water direct system, the installation procedure requires “Tee-joint” with seal at the _________. A. Mains gate B. Mains piping C. Mains tubing D. Mains float Answer: B Water is always stored above its _________. A. Level B. Head C. Outlet D. Outcome Answer: C Water seal at the neck of water closet traps water and prevents _________. A. Faeces flow back B. Foul smell traveling up C. Water flow back D. Aqueous traveling up Answer: B Water closet cistern can be located at _________. A. Clean or dirty place B. Near or far places C. Low or high levels D. High or low frames Answer: C Warm water will always be displaced by cold water whether in open or _________. A. Lowered circuit B. Congealed circuit C. Raised up circuit D. Closed circuit Answer: D Section 4: Liquid clay is called what? A. Slyp B. Sleep C. Slip D. Melter Answer: C The identity of a colour is called what? A. Tone B. Colour-point C. Hue D. All of the above Answer: C Warm colours do not tend to be receding. A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Sometimes D. None of the above Answer: A Weaving is usually associated with what? A. Looming B. Loom C. Loomers D. Loomies Answer: A In colour perspective, the distant colours are ______? A. Distinct B. Shades C. Pale D. Common Answer: C Which of the following colour materials is not waterproof? A. Oil pastel B. Crayon C. Indian ink D. Poster colour Answer: D The term ‘Frontality’ identifies the major characteristics of the painting of the ______? A. Egyptians B. Italians C. Frontugalis D. Chinese Answer: D A mixture of green and orange will result in what? A. Tertiary yellow B. Secondary green C. Tertiary orange D. None of the above Answer: A Indirect light is not another name for reflected light. A. FALSE B. TRUE C. None of the above D. Sometimes Answer: A “Transparency is not for watercolour, opacity is not for oil colour.” A. TRUE B. FALSE C. All of the above D. None of the above Answer: B A mixture of a primary and a neighbouring secondary colour is ______? A. Intermediate colour B. Plain colour C. Adulterant D. Mixed hue Answer: A Value is a ______ of colours? A. Type B. Form C. Property D. All of the above Answer: C How will a white dress under a red illumination appear? A. Purple B. Violet C. All of the above D. None of the above Answer: D The best time to varnish an oil painting is between… A. 6 days and 9 months B. 6 days and C. Less than Answer: C Dry-bone stage is not when ______? A. A watercolour painting should be reframed B. An oil painting should be staged for exhibitions C. All of the above D. None of the above Answer: C Painting is meant for its ______? A. Functional values B. Durability values C. None of the above D. All of the above Answer: C Watercolour painting is an industrial art. A. False B. True C. None of the above D. All of the above Answer: A “A handy flat smooth surface, upon which colours are laid and mixed is a palette knife.” A. True B. False C. All of the above D. None of the above Answer: B Varnishing is mainly meant for what? A. Presentation B. Cracking C. Priming D. Preservation Answer: D What does not protect watercolour painting from direct tamper? A. Double-framing B. Matte texture C. Good framing D. All of the above Answer: D “________ is painting done in one application, not in colour layers.” A. Alla-Prima B. Impasto C. Fresco D. Chiaroscuro oil Answer: A What is an art form in which imagination plays a dominant role? A. Romanticism B. Blue Art C. Love scenes D. All of the above Answer: A The ‘ground’ used in oil-colour tempera painting is called what? A. Groundier B. Gesso C. Drounge hue D. None of the above Answer: B A movement in painting born in 1922 and inspired by Freudian psychology is called what? A. Freudianism B. Freuiopsych C. Surrealism D. Neofreudianism Answer: C The play of light and shade in a picture is called what? A. Chiaroscuro B. Tone C. Tone-lay D. Votoniski Answer: B All these are not painting media except ______? A. Talc B. Lumping C. Duochrome D. Acrylics Answer: D A scene painted in a narrow band round the walls of a room or large building is called what? A. Frieze B. Freesery C. Frizlation D. Friz Art Answer: A Glazing method is not one that involves mixing turpentine and linseed oil to thin the colour. A. FALSE B. Sure C. Really D. All of the above Answer: A ________ brush is not best used for watercolour painting? A. Multiple B. Soft C. Hog D. Sable Answer: C “Canvas, wall, hard board, paper, plywood, thick cardboard papers, etc., are not what you can paint on.” A. TRUE B. FALSE C. None of the above D. All of the above Answer: B Donkeys are necessary for what in the art studio? A. Modelling B. Oil colour C. Watercolour D. Drawing Answer: D Those things one can use to paint are called ______? A. Painting material B. Painting stuff C. Painting grounds D. None of the above Answer: D “A textile design with leaves, plants and flowers is called ______?” A. Booming B. Flooming design C. Floral design D. Boom design Answer: C Glazing method and direct lay (thickly) method are for pastel painting? A. TRUE B. FALSE C. Sometimes D. None of the above Answer: B “The mixture of turpentine and linseed oil in glazing method is not to make the oil colour thin, watery or light.” A. True B. False C. None of the above D. All of the above Answer: B “Drawing, painting and sculpture are forms of ______?” A. Performing B. Applied art C. Dramatic arts D. None of the above Answer: D The gradual laying of watercolours from bright to dark is not called wash technique. A. FALSE B. TRUE C. Sometimes D. All of the above Answer: A Applied arts are mainly made for their ______ purposes? A. Industrial B. Company C. Plain D. Durability Answer: A ________ is a form of applied arts? A. Drawing B. Dancing C. Planning D. None of the above Answer: D “Textiles, graphics, ceramics are forms of ______?” A. Modern arts B. Fine arts C. Productive arts D. Utilitarian art Answer: D What colour will not be added to blue to get green? A. Red B. Pink C. Orange D. None of the above Answer: D “Y & R = O, B & Y = G, R & B = ?” A. N B. P C. Q D. A Answer: B “Blue, green, purple are ______ colours?” A. Warm colours B. Soft colours C. None of the above D. All of the above Answer: C Which of these Nigerian universities has a famous art school? A. UNILAG B. ABU C. UNIMAID D. AE-FUNAI Answer: C What is the name given to a detailed painting of a person? A. Life drawing B. Figure drawing C. Figure painting D. None of the above Answer: D What device is used to show the solidity of objects in painting? A. Light and shade B. Cross hatching C. Solidiquety D. Stone approach Answer: A One of the styles in the history of art and painting is termed ______? A. Ricoco B. Rococo C. Racoco D. Rokoko art Answer: B The preliminary drawing done before painting is called what? A. Shading B. Muralling C. Colouring D. None of the above Answer: D What is not monochrome painting? A. Deep-colour painting B. Multi-colour painting C. Neutral-colour painting D. All of the above Answer: D What is the major difference in attitude between oil colour and watercolour? A. “Oil colour is transparent, while watercolour is opaque.” B. “Oil colour is opaque, while watercolour is not transparent.” C. Watercolour is oily while oil colour is watery. D. None of the above Answer: D

GST Past Questions and Answers

Title: GST Past Questions and Answers URL: https://studentsdash.com/gst-200-past-questions-and-answers/ -------------------------------------------------- Study the Updated GST 202 Past Questions and Answers Questions Conflict can be best defined as: a. A peaceful negotiation process b. A disagreement between parties c. A process of harmony d. An agreement on all issues e. None of the above Answer: b Which of the following is NOT a type of conflict? a. Interpersonal conflict b. Intrapersonal conflict c. Environmental conflict d. Organizational conflict e. Philosophical conflict Answer: e One major cause of conflict is: a. Understanding between individuals b. Resource scarcity c. Cultural similarities d. Political stability e. Social harmony Answer: b Effective conflict management involves: a. Ignoring the conflict b. Escalating the disagreement c. Applying strategic resolution mechanisms d. Avoiding communication e. All of the above Answer: c Mediation in conflict resolution is carried out by: a. A biased party b. A neutral third party c. A direct participant d. The aggressor e. None of the above Answer: b Which of these is NOT an example of conflict prevention? a. Early warning systems b. Strengthening institutions c. Ignoring disputes d. Promoting dialogue e. Peace education Answer: c An ethnic conflict is defined as: a. A disagreement within families b. A conflict involving ethnic groups c. A dispute over job promotions d. A conflict caused by external forces e. None of the above Answer: b The term “peacebuilding” refers to: a. Constructing physical infrastructure b. Establishing conditions for sustainable peace c. Avoiding conflict resolution d. Allowing disputes to escalate e. Strengthening military forces Answer: b A primary function of arbitration is: a. Increasing hostility b. Enforcing decisions through a third party c. Avoiding discussions d. Encouraging violent protests e. Preventing resolution Answer: b Which of these is considered a structural cause of conflict? a. Economic inequality b. Miscommunication c. Religious tolerance d. Family disputes e. Technological advancements Answer: a The primary goal of peacekeeping operations is: a. To escalate conflicts b. To restore and maintain peace c. To promote violence d. To create political instability e. To focus on economic growth Answer: b One key feature of alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is: a. Dependence on legal battles b. Expensive procedures c. Voluntary participation d. Aggressive tactics e. Biased outcomes Answer: c Which of the following is NOT a tool for conflict management? a. Mediation b. Negotiation c. Arbitration d. Hostility e. Conciliation Answer: d Intrapersonal conflict occurs: a. Between nations b. Within an individual c. Among organizations d. Between two ethnic groups e. In a community Answer: b The term “conflict transformation” means: a. Worsening a conflict situation b. Shifting a conflict into a positive change c. Avoiding communication d. Creating new disputes e. None of the above Answer: b Cultural conflicts are caused by: a. Similar traditions b. Religious and cultural differences c. Equal resource allocation d. Harmonious relationships e. Social stability Answer: b The concept of “zero-sum” in conflict implies: a. Both parties benefit equally b. One party wins, and the other loses c. No resources are involved d. Mutual collaboration e. None of the above Answer: b Conflict escalation is characterized by: a. Increased cooperation b. Reduced tension c. Intensified hostility d. Peaceful dialogue e. Reconciliation efforts Answer: c Gender-based conflict refers to disputes arising from: a. Political ideologies b. Gender roles and expectations c. Economic policies d. Technological innovations e. Cultural unity Answer: b A peace conference is an example of: a. Military engagement b. Conflict resolution strategy c. Structural conflict d. Cultural integration e. Ethnic dispute Answer: b Intergroup conflict occurs: a. Within one individual b. Between different groups c. Among family members d. Within an organization e. Inside a political party Answer: b The use of dialogue in conflict resolution is primarily aimed at: a. Suppressing opinions b. Encouraging understanding and cooperation c. Promoting aggression d. Avoiding negotiation e. Limiting communication Answer: b Which of the following is NOT an effect of conflict? a. Economic growth b. Loss of lives c. Displacement of people d. Destruction of infrastructure e. Political instability Answer: a Sustainable development in conflict management focuses on: a. Promoting resource depletion b. Ensuring long-term peace and stability c. Ignoring social welfare d. Prioritizing military actions e. Avoiding conflict resolution Answer: b The first step in conflict resolution is: a. Ignoring the problem b. Understanding the root cause c. Encouraging confrontation d. Promoting violence e. Escalating disputes Answer: b An example of an internal conflict is: a. A trade war b. A personal moral dilemma c. A border dispute d. A political uprising e. None of the above Answer: b The term “reconciliation” in conflict resolution refers to: a. Seeking revenge b. Restoring broken relationships c. Preventing dialogue d. Ignoring the past e. Promoting new conflicts Answer: b Structural violence is a form of: a. Physical violence b. Systematic inequality in society c. Open warfare d. Direct conflict e. Non-violent action Answer: b One of the roles of international organizations in conflict resolution is: a. Promoting disputes b. Providing mediation and peacekeeping services c. Ignoring global issues d. Encouraging territorial conflicts e. Supporting aggressive regimes Answer: b Which of the following promotes peacebuilding? a. Resource allocation disparities b. Inclusive governance and justice c. Economic oppression d. Political exclusion e. None of the above Answer: b Conflict resolution is defined as: a. Avoiding the issues entirely b. Finding a peaceful solution to a dispute c. Prolonging the conflict d. Escalating the disagreement e. Ignoring the parties involved Answer: b Which of these is an example of constructive conflict? a. A heated argument with no resolution b. A dispute leading to positive change c. A prolonged battle with losses d. Total breakdown in communication e. None of the above Answer: b Conflict prevention requires: a. Procrastination b. Early warning systems and intervention c. Ignoring potential disputes d. Spreading misinformation e. Avoiding dialogue Answer: b A neutral party in mediation must: a. Favor one side b. Ensure impartiality c. Ignore the conflict d. Promote aggression e. Take control of the decision Answer: b One of the key strategies for managing ethnic conflicts is: a. Avoiding discussion of cultural issues b. Promoting inclusiveness and dialogue c. Supporting discriminatory practices d. Suppressing minority groups e. Encouraging separation Answer: b In conflict theory, power struggle is often cited as: a. A secondary cause b. A root cause of conflict c. An irrelevant factor d. A solution to disputes e. A resolution method Answer: b Gender mainstreaming in conflict resolution refers to: a. Ignoring gender perspectives b. Addressing the roles of men and women equally c. Focusing solely on men d. Neglecting women’s contributions e. Promoting patriarchal dominance Answer: b The absence of direct violence but the presence of inequalities is known as: a. Peacebuilding b. Structural violence c. Positive peace d. Absolute war e. Political harmony Answer: b National identity conflicts often arise from: a. Strong unity in a nation b. Disputes over citizenship and cultural differences c. Equal treatment of all citizens d. Shared goals among diverse groups e. None of the above Answer: b Arbitration differs from mediation because: a. The arbitrator makes a binding decision b. The arbitrator is biased c. The mediator dictates the solution d. Arbitration avoids communication e. None of the above Answer: a Economic inequality is a common cause of: a. Political stability b. Social conflict c. Environmental improvement d. Gender equality e. Conflict resolution Answer: b The principle of restorative justice focuses on: a. Punishing offenders b. Repairing harm and rebuilding relationships c. Escalating the conflict d. Avoiding accountability e. Promoting division Answer: b One of the roles of NGOs in conflict resolution is: a. Promoting disputes b. Providing humanitarian assistance and advocacy c. Supporting violent regimes d. Encouraging political instability e. Ignoring societal issues Answer: b Conflict analysis is essential for: a. Avoiding resolution strategies b. Identifying the causes and dynamics of conflicts c. Ignoring the root causes d. Promoting misunderstandings e. Escalating disputes Answer: b Peace education aims to: a. Encourage revenge b. Promote values of peace and tolerance c. Ignore cultural diversity d. Create divisions among people e. Prolong conflicts Answer: b One of the consequences of unresolved conflicts is: a. Improved cooperation b. Political instability and economic decline c. Increased peacebuilding efforts d. Strengthened social bonds e. Effective communication Answer: b Conflict-sensitive approaches involve: a. Ignoring the effects of interventions b. Minimizing harm and maximizing positive impacts c. Escalating disputes d. Focusing solely on military solutions e. Avoiding dialogue Answer: b Women in conflict often play roles as: a. Mediators and peacebuilders b. Escalators of violence c. Passive observers d. Aggressors e. None of the above Answer: a Interfaith dialogue aims to: a. Create religious divisions b. Promote mutual understanding among faiths c. Prolong religious conflicts d. Disregard cultural values e. Oppose peaceful coexistence Answer: b Conflict transformation differs from conflict resolution by: a. Addressing only the immediate problem b. Seeking long-term structural and cultural changes c. Ignoring root causes d. Promoting short-term peace agreements e. Avoiding communication Answer: b The concept of negative peace refers to: a. The absence of violence and presence of justice b. The absence of direct violence but no justice c. Long-term sustainable peace d. Complete harmony in society e. Economic development without peace Answer: b One major disadvantage of using force in conflict resolution is: a. It reduces hostility b. It often leads to long-term resentment c. It promotes peace immediately d. It builds trust among parties e. It is always successful Answer: b The role of youth in peacebuilding includes: a. Igniting violence b. Promoting social cohesion and dialogue c. Encouraging societal divisions d. Avoiding participation in decision-making e. Supporting only one side of a conflict Answer: b Conflicts caused by scarcity of resources are called: a. Political conflicts b. Environmental conflicts c. Resource-based conflicts d. Ethnic conflicts e. Social conflicts Answer: c Post-conflict reconstruction focuses on: a. Prolonging disputes b. Rebuilding infrastructure and fostering reconciliation c. Ignoring affected communities d. Supporting inequality e. Promoting economic sanctions Answer: b The first step in negotiation is: a. Ignoring the other party b. Understanding the interests of both sides c. Making a final demand d. Escalating the conflict e. Promoting hostility Answer: b Religious conflict often arises from: a. Mutual respect between religions b. Misunderstandings and intolerance among faiths c. Economic differences d. Gender roles in society e. Equal resource distribution Answer: b The essence of intercultural communication is to: a. Promote cultural superiority b. Bridge differences and foster understanding c. Avoid interactions among cultures d. Encourage cultural conflicts e. Focus on one culture Answer: b Which of the following is an indicator of a successful mediation process? a. Escalated hostility b. Increased understanding between parties c. Breakdown in communication d. Refusal to compromise e. Bias towards one party Answer: b The term “early warning system” in conflict management refers to: a. Military action plans b. Mechanisms to identify and address potential conflicts early c. Delayed interventions d. Avoidance of action e. Political propaganda Answer: b Social justice is important in peacebuilding because it: a. Promotes discrimination b. Encourages equality and fairness c. Ignores the marginalized d. Favors specific groups e. Avoids addressing conflicts Answer: b The conflict cycle begins with: a. Resolution b. Tension or disagreement c. Mediation d. Reconciliation e. Peacebuilding Answer: b Which of the following is NOT a method of conflict resolution? a. Negotiation b. Arbitration c. Reconciliation d. Escalation e. Mediation Answer: d Peace agreements are effective when: a. They address only short-term issues b. They are inclusive and address root causes c. They exclude major stakeholders d. They enforce power imbalance e. They are hastily signed Answer: b Reconciliation after conflict is hindered by: a. Trust-building initiatives b. Deep-seated hatred and unresolved issues c. Transparent dialogue d. Inclusive governance e. Justice for victims Answer: b The term “win-win” solution in negotiation means: a. Both parties are dissatisfied b. Both parties gain mutual benefits c. One party loses everything d. Compromises are ignored e. Only the mediator benefits Answer: b Climate change is often linked to: a. Religious conflicts b. Environmental and resource-based conflicts c. Technological disputes d. Cultural harmony e. Economic stability Answer: b What is a key challenge in resolving global conflicts? a. Absence of international laws b. Differing interests of global powers c. Lack of communication channels d. Strong unity among nations e. Excessive peace initiatives Answer: b Which of the following is an approach to managing workplace conflict? a. Encouraging gossip b. Fostering open communication c. Promoting favoritism d. Avoiding the issue e. Creating more rules Answer: b Conflict resolution training is essential for: a. Only leaders b. All individuals in society c. Military personnel only d. The wealthy class e. Political elites only Answer: b Non-violent communication focuses on: a. Blaming others for conflicts b. Expressing needs and feelings respectfully c. Avoiding dialogue altogether d. Promoting aggressive behavior e. Forcing agreement Answer: b One of the consequences of war is: a. Strengthened diplomatic relations b. Massive loss of life and displacement c. Economic prosperity for all d. Increased cooperation among nations e. Creation of sustainable peace Answer: b A peacebuilding process involves: a. Ignoring societal grievances b. Strengthening institutions and addressing root causes of conflict c. Focusing solely on military intervention d. Excluding marginalized groups e. Escalating disputes Answer: b The term “peace enforcement” refers to: a. Voluntary dialogue between warring parties b. The use of force to maintain or restore peace c. Ignoring international laws d. Delaying peace negotiations e. Avoiding conflict zones Answer: b Which of the following is NOT a cause of conflict? a. Miscommunication b. Equal distribution of resources c. Political instability d. Cultural misunderstandings e. Economic inequality Answer: b The difference between conflict and violence is: a. Violence is always peaceful b. Conflict may not involve physical harm, but violence does c. Conflict always involves physical aggression d. Violence resolves issues peacefully e. There is no difference Answer: b One of the advantages of collaborative conflict management is: a. Suppressing diverse opinions b. Encouraging mutual respect and solutions c. Creating winners and losers d. Avoiding cooperation e. Prolonging disagreements Answer: b Effective leadership in conflict management requires: a. Taking sides b. Promoting transparency and fairness c. Avoiding tough decisions d. Ignoring the concerns of others e. Escalating disputes Answer: b An example of a conflict resolution tool is: a. Hostility b. Dialogue and negotiation c. Physical combat d. Avoidance of problems e. Imposed silence Answer: b Conflict sensitivity ensures that interventions: a. Ignore the effects on society b. Do not harm and contribute positively to peace c. Are biased towards one party d. Escalate the conflict further e. Focus solely on short-term gains Answer: b

HIR 107 Past Questions and Answers (Introduction to International Law)

LASU Cut-Off Marks, Courses, UTME Subjects & O’Level Requirements (Lagos State University)

Title: LASU Cut-Off Marks, Courses, UTME Subjects & O’Level Requirements (Lagos State University) URL: https://studentsdash.com/lasu-cut-off-marks-courses-utme-subjects-olevel-requirements-lagos-state-university/ -------------------------------------------------- LASU Campus (Ojo, Lagos State) LASU Admission Guide (2026/2027) The Lagos State University (LASU) is a popular state-owned university established in 1983. It is located in Ojo, Lagos State and is one of the most competitive state universities in Nigeria. This guide explains the complete LASU admission requirements for the 2026/2027 academic session , including cut-off marks, Post-UTME screening process, O’Level requirements, and UTME subject combinations. LASU UTME Cut-Off Mark for 2026/2027 The general JAMB cut-off mark for LASU is 190 . However, competitive courses require significantly higher scores. Medicine & Surgery: 240 – 270 Law: 230 – 250 Engineering courses: 210 – 240 Arts, Education & Sciences: 190 – 210 Always verify official updates via the LASU official website . LASU Post-UTME Screening Exercise LASU conducts an online Post-UTME screening exercise . Candidates are assessed mainly using: UTME score O’Level grades Correct UTME subject combination Uploaded results on JAMB CAPS Note: LASU Post-UTME may involve CBT screening depending on the year. General Admission Requirements To qualify for admission into LASU, candidates must meet the following requirements: Minimum UTME score approved by LASU Five (5) O’Level credit passes including English Language Mathematics is compulsory for Science, Engineering, and Management courses Correct UTME subject combination LASU must be chosen as First Choice institution LASU Faculty Requirements (UTME Subjects) Faculty of Engineering UTME Subjects: English Language, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry O’Level: English, Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, Biology College of Medicine UTME Subjects: English Language, Biology, Chemistry, Physics O’Level: English, Mathematics, Biology, Chemistry, Physics Faculty of Arts & Social Sciences UTME Subjects: English Language + three relevant subjects O’Level: English, Mathematics and three relevant subjects LASU Admission Tips (2026/2027) Score far above LASU cut-off mark (200+ recommended) Use the correct UTME subject combination Upload complete O’Level results early on JAMB CAPS Choose LASU as First Choice Follow LASU screening updates regularly

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LAW 102 Logic and Philosophical Thoughts (PHL 121 Past Questions and Answers

Title: LAW 102 Logic and Philosophical Thoughts (PHL 121 Past Questions and Answers URL: https://studentsdash.com/law-102-logic-and-philosophical-thoughts-phl-121-past-questions-and-answers/ -------------------------------------------------- LAW 102 Logic and Philosophical Thoughts (PHL 121 Past Questions and Answers DOWNLOAD STUDENTSDASH APP View Past Questions Answers

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