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EBSU-Phy 101 Past Questions and Answers

Title: EBSU-Phy 101 Past Questions and Answers URL: https://studentsdash.com/phy-101-past-questions-and-answers/ -------------------------------------------------- The measurement of the following physical quantity is the same: A. Pressure and stress B. Work and force C. Velocity and acceleration D. Length and mass Answer: A If a car is traveling at 8 m/s and accelerates uniformly at 2 m/s², its velocity after 5 seconds will be: A. 20 m/s B. 18 m/s C. 25 m/s D. 24 m/s Answer: B The maximum velocity acquired by a body falling through a viscous liquid is called: A. Viscous velocity B. Velocity gradient C. Terminal velocity D. Instantaneous velocity Answer: C If a spring has a stiffness of 950 N/m, what amount of work will be done in extending the spring by 60 mm? A. 1.71 × 10² J B. 1.71 × 10⁴ J C. 1.71 × 10⁰ J D. 17.1 × 10² J Answer: C For simple harmonic motion at the mean position, the angular momentum is: A. Zero B. Infinite C. Maximum D. Minimum Answer: A The work-energy equation is given as: A. me = ½ mv² B. ft = mv – mu C. Fs = ½ m(v² – u²) D. ½ m(v² + u²) Answer: C A body with a moment of inertia of 3.2 kgm² and an angular velocity of 2.5 rad/s. Find its kinetic energy: A. 2 J B. 0.5 J C. 10.5 J D. 10 J (Please provide the answer for question 7.) The SI unit of angular momentum is: A. kgm/s B. kgm²s⁻² C. kgm²s² D. kgm²rad/s Answer: D A 2 kg block is dropped from a height of 0.4 m onto a spring whose force constant, k, is 1600 N/m. Find the maximum distance the spring will be compressed: A. 2 m B. 0.2 m C. 0.1 m D. 1.0 m Answer: C A metal ball of radius 2.0 mm falls under gravity in oil with a coefficient of viscosity of 2.5 Nsm⁻². If the density of the oil is 950 kg/m³, what is the terminal velocity attained by the metal? A. 3.1 × 10² m/s B. 2.5 × 10² m/s C. 4.3 × 10² m/s D. 1.2 × 10² m/s Answer: B The pressure in a column of fluid does not depend on which of the following: A. Density of fluid B. Shape of the container C. Weight of fluid D. Gravity Answer: B The work done when a force of (1+2j+k)(1 + 2j + k)(1+2j+k) N displaces a body from r1=(−i−2k)r_1 = (-i – 2k)r1​=(−i−2k) m to r2=(j+k)r_2 = (j + k)r2​=(j+k) is: A. 12 J B. 10 J C. 2 J D. 6 J Answer: D Which of the following physical quantities is a scalar? A. Electric field B. Electric potential C. Force D. Velocity Answer: B If force FFF, velocity VVV, and acceleration AAA are taken as fundamental units instead of mass, length, and time, express impulse in terms of FFF, VVV, and AAA: A. FV2A2FV^2A^2FV2A2 B. FVAFVAFVA C. FA/VFA/VFA/V D. FV/AFV/AFV/A Answer: D The dimension of the coefficient of viscosity is: A. MLT−1MLT^{-1}MLT−1 B. M2L2T−1M^2L^2T^{-1}M2L2T−1 C. ML−1T−1ML^{-1}T^{-1}ML−1T−1 D. ML−2T2ML^{-2}T^2ML−2T2 Answer: C A 6 kg object is subjected to three forces f1=20i+30jf_1 = 20i + 30jf1​=20i+30j N, f2=8i−50jf_2 = 8i – 50jf2​=8i−50j N, and f3=2i+2jf_3 = 2i + 2jf3​=2i+2j N. What is the acceleration? A. 5i+3j m/s25i + 3j \, m/s^25i+3jm/s2 B. 5i−3j m/s25i – 3j \, m/s^25i−3jm/s2 C. 3i+5j m/s23i + 5j \, m/s^23i+5jm/s2 D. 3i−5j m/s23i – 5j \, m/s^23i−5jm/s2 Answer: B What is the average power required to lift a mass of 100 kg to a height of 50 m in 50 seconds? A. 100 J B. 980 Watts C. 50 Watts D. 5000 Watts Answer: B If the force and the velocity on a system are each reduced simultaneously by half, the power of the system is: A. Double B. Constant C. Reduced to a quarter D. Reduced by half Answer: C A body starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration of 6 m/s². What distance does it cover in the third second? A. 18 m B. 15 m C. 27 m D. 30 m Answer: B The density of 400 cm³ of palm oil was 0.9 g/cm³ before frying. If the density of the oil was 0.6 g/cm³ after, assuming no loss of oil due to spilling, its new volume will be: A. 360 cm³ B. 600 cm³ C. 240 cm³ D. 450 cm³ Answer: B If the moment of inertia of a sphere about its center is I=25mα2I = \frac{2}{5} m\alpha^2I=52​mα2, calculate the radius of gyration in terms of α\alphaα: A. 2.5α2.5\alpha2.5α B. 0.63α0.63\alpha0.63α C. 0.5α0.5\alpha0.5α D. 3.6α3.6\alpha3.6α Answer: B What happens to the kinetic energy of a moving object if the net work done is positive? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It remains the same D. It is zero Answer: A The time taken by a train to slow down from 80 km/hr to 20 km/hr with a uniform deceleration of 2 m/s² is: A. 9 s B. 10 s C. 8.3 s D. 8 s Answer: C A container with a mass of 5 kg is lifted to a height of 8 m. How much work is done by the external force? A. 400 J B. -400 J C. 0 J D. 50 J Answer: A The physical quantity whose dimensional formula is M1L0T−2M^1L^0T^{-2}M1L0T−2 is: A. Bulk modulus B. Electric conductance C. Surface tension D. Force Answer: C The equation of continuity for the streamline flow of fluid can be expressed as: A. A1V1=A2V2A_1V_1 = A_2V_2A1​V1​=A2​V2​ B. A12V12=A22V22A_1^2V_1^2 = A_2^2V_2^2A12​V12​=A22​V22​ C. A12V1=A22V2A_1^2V_1 = A_2^2V_2A12​V1​=A22​V2​ D. A2V2=A1V1A^2V^2 = A_1V_1A2V2=A1​V1​ Answer: A The work done by gravitational force when an object of weight 50 kg on a floor moves through a distance of 3 m is: A. 500 J B. 150 J C. 0 J D. 1500 J Answer: C The bulk modulus of elasticity is given by k=−VΔpΔvk = -\frac{V\Delta p}{\Delta v}k=−ΔvVΔp​; the minus in the expression indicates: A. Increase in pressure B. Decrease in pressure C. Increase in volume D. Decrease in volume Answer: D The load that stretches a wire is called: A. Tensile load B. Tensile force C. Tensile stress D. Tensile strain Answer: B The moment of force is known as: A. Torque B. Couple C. Inertia D. Momentum Answer: A A particle moving in a circular path with a constant speed is said to have: A. Zero acceleration B. Uniform acceleration C. Centripetal acceleration D. Angular momentum Answer: C The unit of work done in joules is equivalent to: A. kg·m/s B. kg·m²/s² C. N·m D. All of the above Answer: D A projectile is launched at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. What is the shape of its trajectory? A. Circle B. Parabola C. Ellipse D. Straight line Answer: B What is the potential energy of a 2 kg mass at a height of 10 m? (Use g = 9.8 m/s²) A. 98 J B. 196 J C. 20 J D. 80 J Answer: B In a vacuum, all objects fall with the same acceleration due to: A. Gravity B. Mass C. Air resistance D. Weight Answer: A The force that opposes the motion of a body through a fluid is known as: A. Friction B. Drag C. Lift D. Thrust Answer: B The Law of Conservation of Energy states that: A. Energy can be created or destroyed B. Energy cannot be created or destroyed C. Energy is always lost as heat D. None of the above Answer: B Which of the following quantities is conserved in an elastic collision? A. Kinetic energy B. Momentum C. Both A and B D. None of the above Answer: C The phenomenon of light bending when it passes from one medium to another is called: A. Reflection B. Refraction C. Diffraction D. Dispersion Answer: B The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of: A. Conservation of mass B. Conservation of energy C. Conservation of momentum D. None of the above Answer: B A wave that requires a medium to travel is called a: A. Electromagnetic wave B. Mechanical wave C. Longitudinal wave D. Transverse wave Answer: B The speed of sound is highest in: A. Solids B. Liquids C. Gases D. Vacuum Answer: A The unit of frequency is: A. Hertz (Hz) B. Joule (J) C. Newton (N) D. Watt (W) Answer: A A current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field experiences: A. No force B. A magnetic force C. An electric force D. Both A and C Answer: B The energy stored in a stretched or compressed spring is known as: A. Kinetic energy B. Elastic potential energy C. Gravitational potential energy D. Thermal energy Answer: B The center of mass of a system of particles is defined as: A. The point where all mass is concentrated B. The average position of all particles C. The point of balance D. All of the above Answer: D In a lever, the distance from the fulcrum to the point where the force is applied is called: A. Effort arm B. Load arm C. Moment arm D. Distance arm Answer: A The work done by a force is maximum when: A. The angle between force and displacement is 0° B. The angle between force and displacement is 90° C. The angle between force and displacement is 180° D. There is no displacement Answer: A The total mechanical energy of a system is the sum of: A. Kinetic energy and thermal energy B. Potential energy and thermal energy C. Kinetic energy and potential energy D. Kinetic energy and work done Answer: C The acceleration due to gravity decreases as: A. You move away from the Earth’s surface B. You move towards the Earth’s surface C. You increase your weight D. You increase your speed Answer: A

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Past Questions

ECO 101 Assignment Questions and Answers

Title: ECO 101 Assignment Questions and Answers URL: https://studentsdash.com/eco-101-assignment-questions-and-answers/ -------------------------------------------------- Discuss the determinants of production in a market economy Determinants of Production in a Market Economy In a market economy, production is determined by various factors that influence the supply of goods and services. These determinants play a crucial role in shaping how resources are allocated, what is produced, and in what quantity. Below are the key determinants of production in a market economy: 1. Availability of Factors of Production Production depends on the four major factors: land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship. • Land: Refers to all natural resources used in production. The availability of land and raw materials affects what can be produced. • Labor: The human effort (skilled or unskilled) required to produce goods and services. A market economy thrives on an efficient workforce. • Capital: Includes machinery, tools, and infrastructure used in production. Access to capital determines how much and how efficiently goods can be produced. • Entrepreneurship: Entrepreneurs organize the other factors of production, take risks, and introduce innovations. A market economy relies on entrepreneurs to drive production through investment and risk-taking. 2. Demand and Supply Forces Market economies operate on the principle of demand and supply. • High demand for a product encourages producers to increase production to maximize profits. • Low demand discourages production, leading firms to shift to more profitable ventures. • Supply conditions like cost of inputs, availability of raw materials, and production technology also determine production levels. 3. Price Mechanism and Profit Motive Producers in a market economy are guided by price signals. If the price of a product increases, firms are motivated to produce more due to higher profit margins. On the other hand, if prices fall, production may reduce since producers may not cover their costs. 4. Technological Advancement The level of technology available affects production efficiency. Advanced machinery, automation, and digital tools improve productivity, reduce costs, and increase output. Countries with high technological development experience higher production levels in various sectors. 5. Government Policies and Regulations Although a market economy is based on free enterprise, the government still influences production through policies such as: • Taxation (high taxes may reduce production) • Subsidies (government support can boost production) • Trade policies (import and export regulations affect production decisions) 6. Availability of Infrastructure Good infrastructure like transportation networks, power supply, and communication systems enhances production. Poor infrastructure increases production costs and discourages businesses. 7. Access to Finance and Credit The ability of businesses to get loans and credit facilities affects production. If credit is easily accessible at low interest rates, producers can invest in expansion and increase output. 8. Competition in the Market The level of competition influences production decisions. In highly competitive markets, firms strive to produce more efficiently and innovate to maintain market share. However, monopolies may limit production to control prices. Conclusion In a market economy, production is determined by a combination of resource availability, market forces, technology, government policies, and financial conditions. Producers respond to these factors based on profit motives and economic incentives. A well-functioning market economy ensures that production is efficient and meets consumer demand.

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Past Questions

ECO 102 Past Questions and Answers

Title: ECO 102 Past Questions and Answers URL: https://studentsdash.com/eco-102-past-questions-and-answers/ -------------------------------------------------- Chat on WhatsApp Contents The Concept of Macro Economics National Income Accounting Circular Flow of Income Money and Barter System Financial Institution Inflation Employment and Unemployment Business Cycle Theory Public Finance Evolution of Theories of International Trade Economic Development PRACTICE The main focus of macroeconomics is: A. Individual firms B. Aggregate output and employment C. Household choice D. Product design Answer: B Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures: A. Total income of residents only B. Value of final goods and services produced domestically C. Total exports only D. Government spending only Answer: B Which approach sums wages, rent, interest and profits? A. Expenditure approach B. Income approach C. Production approach D. Transfer approach Answer: B Net factor income from abroad is included in: A. GDP B. GNP (GNI) C. Value added only D. Imports Answer: B If depreciation is subtracted from GDP, we get: A. Gross national product B. Net domestic product C. Personal income D. Disposable income Answer: B A fall in consumption with constant investment likely reduces: A. Aggregate demand B. Aggregate supply C. Potential output D. Money supply Answer: A The circular flow model without government includes: A. Households and firms only B. Government, households, firms C. Banks only D. Foreign sector only Answer: A In the circular flow, savings are: A. Injections B. Leakages C. Taxes D. Exports Answer: B An injection into the circular flow is: A. Savings B. Taxes C. Investment D. Imports Answer: C If leakages > injections, equilibrium output will: A. Rise B. Fall C. Remain same D. Cause hyperinflation Answer: B Barter fails mainly because: A. Money value fluctuates B. Double coincidence of wants is hard C. Banks control barter D. Taxes are higher Answer: B Money as a unit of account means it: A. Stores value only B. Measures prices and value C. Is used for barter D. Is always backed by gold Answer: B Which is NOT a function of money? A. Medium of exchange B. Unit of account C. Factor of production D. Store of value Answer: C Fiat money is: A. Backed by gold B. Legal tender by government decree C. Barter goods D. Foreign currency only Answer: B A major short-run effect of introducing money is: A. Eliminate all transaction costs B. Easier trade and specialization C. End of prices D. Instant full employment Answer: B Financial institutions mainly: A. Produce goods B. Channel funds from savers to borrowers C. Set fiscal policy D. Control exports Answer: B A bank’s main role in credit creation is to: A. Print money B. Lend deposits and create deposits C. Fix prices D. Control imports Answer: B The central bank usually: A. Runs commercial shops B. Controls monetary policy C. Runs hospitals D. Prints textbooks Answer: B Open market operations affect: A. Government spending only B. Money supply and interest rates C. Exports only D. Tax laws Answer: B Reserve requirement ratio affects: A. Bank lending capacity B. Export quotas C. Tariff levels D. Wage setting Answer: A Cost-push inflation is caused by: A. Too much demand only B. Rising production costs C. Falling wages only D. Lower money supply Answer: B Demand-pull inflation arises when: A. Aggregate demand exceeds supply B. Supply increases faster than demand C. Prices fall D. Exports drop only Answer: A If inflation expectations rise, nominal wages tend to: A. Fall immediately B. Rise as workers demand compensation C. Stay fixed by law D. Equal zero Answer: B Headline inflation includes: A. Only food and energy B. All items in the CPI basket C. GDP deflator only D. Only housing costs Answer: B Core inflation excludes: A. Durable goods B. Food and energy prices C. Services D. Clothing Answer: B Frictional unemployment is due to: A. Skill mismatch B. Time in job search C. Permanent industry decline D. Seasonal layoffs Answer: B Structural unemployment results from: A. Short job search time B. Mismatch of skills and jobs C. Temporary strikes only D. Seasonal work Answer: B Cyclical unemployment is caused by: A. Long-term structural shifts B. Business cycle downturns C. Job search frictions only D. Immigration Answer: B Natural rate of unemployment equals: A. Zero B. Frictional + structural unemployment C. Cyclical unemployment only D. Full employment without any unemployment Answer: B If minimum wage rises above equilibrium, it may cause: A. Excess supply of labor (unemployment) B. Labor shortage only C. No effect on market D. Immediate full employment Answer: A Business cycles are measured by changes in: A. Long-run trend only B. Short-run fluctuations in output and employment C. Population growth rates only D. Land use patterns Answer: B A recession is identified by: A. Rapid inflation only B. Significant decline in economic activity across the economy C. High net exports always D. Permanent GDP increase Answer: B Leading indicators are useful because they: A. Move before the economy as a whole B. Always predict exact dates of recessions C. Are the same as lagging indicators D. Measure only monetary policy Answer: A Expansion in a business cycle is when: A. Output declines B. Output and employment increase C. Prices always fall D. Investment stops Answer: B Fiscal policy uses: A. Interest rate changes only B. Government spending and taxes C. Central bank reserves only D. Tariff quotas only Answer: B A contractionary fiscal policy would: A. Increase government spending B. Reduce spending or raise taxes C. Cut central bank reserves only D. Eliminate public debt immediately Answer: B Progressive tax system means: A. Same rate for all incomes B. Higher average tax with higher income C. Lower rate for higher incomes D. No taxation Answer: B Benefit principle in taxation says taxes should be: A. Based on ability to pay only B. Related to benefits received from public goods C. Collected only from firms D. Flat for everyone Answer: B Public debt is sustainable if: A. Interest rate < GDP growth rate or debt stabilizes relative to GDP B. Debt always grows faster than GDP C. Government stops all spending D. Taxes are zero Answer: A Debt crowding out happens when: A. Private investment falls due to higher interest rates from government borrowing B. Exports rise automatically C. Consumption increases only D. Money supply vanishes Answer: A A lump-sum tax is efficient because it: A. Distorts choices heavily B. Does not change relative prices of goods and work C. Is always fair D. Is easy to evade Answer: B Transfer payments are: A. Government payments to firms for goods only B. Payments like pensions and unemployment benefits C. Taxes collected by the state D. Exports of services Answer: B The fiscal multiplier is larger when: A. Openness to trade is high B. Marginal propensity to consume is high and imports are low C. Taxes are very high always D. Money supply is fixed Answer: B Automatic stabilizers work by: A. Changing policy rates daily B. Dampening fluctuations without new legislation C. Requiring new laws every time D. Eliminating unemployment instantly Answer: B Balance of payments current account records: A. Capital flows only B. Trade in goods and services, income and transfers C. Only exports D. Only imports Answer: B A current account deficit must be financed by: A. Net capital inflows from abroad B. Reducing imports automatically C. Increasing exports instantly D. Cutting domestic savings to zero Answer: A Comparative advantage depends on: A. Absolute productivity only B. Relative opportunity costs across countries C. Tariff levels only D. Currency value only Answer: B Heckscher-Ohlin theory links trade patterns to: A. Technology only B. Factor endowments (capital, labor) C. Political systems only D. Population density only Answer: B Terms of trade measure: A. Ratio of export prices to import prices B. Exchange rate only C. Government budget only D. Domestic inflation rate Answer: A An improvement in terms of trade means: A. Exports fetch more imports per unit B. Imports become more expensive only C. No effect on welfare D. Exports drop to zero Answer: A Export-led growth strategy focuses on: A. Domestic consumption only B. Promoting exports to drive growth C. Closing borders to trade D. Reducing human capital Answer: B Import substitution strategy emphasizes: A. Replacing imports with local production B. Increasing imports always C. Export subsidies only D. Removing local industry Answer: A Foreign direct investment (FDI) usually brings: A. Only capital flight B. Capital, technology and management skills C. Higher trade barriers D. No jobs at all Answer: B A fixed exchange rate requires: A. No foreign reserves B. Active use of reserves to defend the peg C. Flexible monetary policy always D. Ignoring capital flows Answer: B A flexible exchange rate is determined by: A. Central bank only B. Market supply and demand for currency C. Government decree only D. Fixed commodity backing Answer: B Devaluation makes exports: A. Cheaper for foreigners B. More expensive abroad C. Unchanged in competitiveness D. Illegal Answer: A Economic development differs from growth by focusing more on: A. Raw GDP numbers only B. Structural change, living standards and institutions C. Short-run output spikes only D. Currency accumulation only Answer: B Human capital refers to: A. Physical machines only B. Education, skills and health of workers C. Natural resources only D. Government buildings Answer: B Physical capital accumulation raises growth by: A. Reducing labor productivity B. Increasing productive capacity and output per worker C. Causing immediate inflation only D. Eliminating trade Answer: B In Solow model, technological progress leads to: A. Higher long-run growth in output per worker B. Lower productivity forever C. Immediate zero growth D. Decline in steady-state output Answer: A Poverty trap implies: A. Small initial differences can lead to large long-run gaps B. Everyone escapes poverty easily C. No role for savings or investment D. All countries converge automatically Answer: A Sustainable development stresses: A. Only GDP growth today B. Meeting present needs without harming future generations C. Exploiting all resources now D. Ignoring environmental limits Answer: B Structural adjustment programs often require: A. Increased government subsidies only B. Fiscal discipline, liberalization and privatization C. Closing markets to trade D. Banning foreign investment Answer: B Which policy is most likely to reduce structural unemployment? A. Improve education and retraining programs B. Raise unemployment benefits permanently C. Ban technological change D. Fix wages rigidly Answer: A If consumption function is C = 200 + 0.8Y, marginal propensity to consume (MPC) is: A. 0.2 B. 0.8 C. 200 D. 1.0 Answer: B The multiplier (with MPC = 0.75) equals: A. 1 / (1 – 0.75) = 4 B. 0.75 C. 1 D. 0.25 Answer: A Real GDP adjusts nominal GDP using: A. Exchange rates B. Price index (deflator) C. Bank reserves D. Tax rates Answer: B If nominal GDP rises faster than real GDP, this suggests: A. Deflation B. Positive inflation C. No price changes D. GDP deflator fell Answer: B Velocity of money equals: A. (Price level × real GDP) / Money supply B. Money supply only C. Interest rates only D. Tax revenue divided by money Answer: A Monetarists claim controlling money growth controls: A. Trade deficits only B. Long-run inflation C. Employment permanently D. Natural resources Answer: B Phillips curve shows trade-off between: A. Inflation and unemployment in the short run B. Growth and technology only C. Exports and imports only D. Budget deficit and trade balance Answer: A Long-run Phillips curve is vertical because: A. No trade-off exists between inflation and natural unemployment long run B. Inflation eliminates unemployment permanently C. Unemployment can be zero long run D. Prices are fixed long run Answer: A Sticky wages mean wages: A. Adjust instantly to clear labor markets B. Do not fall quickly, causing unemployment in downturns C. Never rise in expansions D. Are always set by markets only Answer: B Rational expectations imply agents: A. Use all available information and model-consistent forecasts B. Never update beliefs C. Ignore policy announcements D. Always be irrational Answer: A If government runs persistent deficits, long-term interest rates may: A. Rise due to higher demand for loanable funds B. Fall to zero always C. Become negative only D. Be unaffected forever Answer: A Seigniorage is revenue from: A. Taxing imports only B. Money creation by the government/central bank C. Income taxes only D. Foreign aid exclusively Answer: B A liquidity trap occurs when: A. Interest rates are very low and monetary policy is ineffective B. Interest rates are high and money demand is low C. Banks refuse to hold reserves only D. All consumers hoard gold only Answer: A Quantitative easing involves: A. Selling long-term assets only B. Central bank buying long-term securities to increase money supply C. Increasing taxes directly D. Cutting exports Answer: B Exchange rate depreciation tends to: A. Make exports cheaper and imports more expensive B. Make exports more expensive abroad C. Eliminate trade entirely D. Fix terms of trade automatically Answer: A Capital account records: A. Trade in goods and services B. Capital transfers and acquisition/disposal of non-produced, non-financial assets C. Only tourism receipts D. Only tax revenue Answer: B A current account surplus implies: A. Net lending to the rest of the world B. Net borrowing from abroad C. Zero investment domestically D. Balanced budget always Answer: A Currency substitution occurs when: A. A country uses a foreign currency widely instead of its own B. Everyone uses barter only C. Central bank bans foreign money strictly D. Imports equal exports always Answer: A Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) suggests: A. Exchange rates adjust so similar goods cost the same across countries B. Exchange rates never change C. Nominal wages are equal across countries D. Tariffs set price levels only Answer: A A trade tariff typically: A. Raises domestic prices of imported goods B. Lowers government revenue always C. Has no effect on trade flows D. Makes imports cheaper Answer: A Subsidies to domestic industry typically: A. Improve long-run efficiency always B. Distort resource allocation and fiscal cost C. Lower domestic production cost without cost D. Are revenue-neutral always Answer: B Import quota restricts: A. Quantity of imports allowed B. Export prices only C. Currency supply only D. Domestic production only Answer: A Structural transformation in development means: A. Economy shifts from agriculture to industry and services B. Staying in low-productivity agriculture only C. Closing all markets to trade D. Reducing human capital Answer: A Income distribution matters for development because: A. It affects poverty, demand and social stability B. It only affects taxes for the rich C. It has no role in growth D. Only average GDP matters Answer: A Conditional cash transfers aim to: A. Provide cash with behavioral conditions like school attendance B. Give cash with no conditions always C. Replace all public services D. Remove incentives for school attendance Answer: A Microfinance primarily targets: A. Large corporations only B. Small borrowers and entrepreneurs lacking collateral C. Government agencies only D. International banks only Answer: B Human Development Index (HDI) combines: A. GDP per capita only B. Income, education and health indicators C. Trade balance only D. Inflation rate only Answer: B A current account surplus combined with capital inflow: A. Means the country is net lender and also receiving foreign investment B. Impossible situation C. Always causes sovereign default D. Indicates zero trade Answer: A Terms of trade deterioration hurts a country because: A. It gets fewer imports for its exports B. Exports become more valuable always C. Domestic prices fall only D. It always leads to higher GDP Answer: A Import-dependent economies have fiscal multipliers that are: A. Larger than closed economies B. Smaller because leakages via imports reduce multiplier C. Equal to zero always D. Infinite Answer: B Convergence hypothesis states: A. Poor countries will catch up to rich countries under certain conditions B. All countries always converge automatically regardless of policy C. Rich countries get poorer always D. Growth rates are identical everywhere Answer: A Balanced growth strategy encourages: A. Equal development across sectors to avoid bottlenecks B. Focus on one sector only always C. Ignoring capital accumulation D. Eliminating exports entirely Answer: A Structural unemployment can be reduced by: A. Improving labor mobility and retraining B. Eliminating education systems C. Fixing wages at high levels permanently D. Banning migration Answer: A If government raises taxes and uses revenue to build roads, short-run effect on aggregate demand is likely: A. Ambiguous — depends on tax size and multiplier effects B. Always zero C. Always negative only D. Always cause hyperinflation Answer: A In small open economy with perfect capital mobility, fiscal expansion tends to: A. Fully crowd out net exports via higher interest rates and exchange rate changes B. Have no effect on trade balance C. Increase exports only D. Lower world interest rates only Answer: A The three pillars of development usually include: A. Economic growth, equity, environmental sustainability B. Only GDP growth, high inflation, trade barriers C. High tariffs, export bans, no education D. Zero investment, closed borders, no institutions Answer: A 101. Price controls are often aimed at helping the poor. A. True B. False Answer: A 102. The price ceiling is binding if it’s below the equilibrium point. A. True B. False Answer: A 103. The price floor is binding if it’s above the equilibrium point. A. True B. False Answer: A 104. When the tax is levied on sellers, buyers and sellers share the burden of the tax. A. True B. False Answer: A 105. In house renting, both supply and demand are more elastic in the long run. A. True B. False Answer: A 106. When a good is taxed, the quantity of the good sold is ____ in the new equilibrium. A. Smaller B. Larger C. The same D. Shifted Answer: A 107. The minimum wage has greatest impact on: A. The market for teenage labor B. The increase in number of old laborers C. The average employee D. The manager of the organization Answer: A 108. Minimum-wage laws may raise the incomes of some workers, but they also: A. Cause other workers to be unemployed B. Disrupt market equilibrium C. Cause inflation D. Decrease quality of hired workers Answer: A 109. The impact of the minimum wage depends on the skill and experience of the worker. A. True B. False Answer: A 110. Buyers and sellers share the burden of the tax all the time. A. True B. False Answer: B 111. Minimum wage raises the income of those workers who have jobs, but it lowers the income of workers who cannot find jobs. A. True B. False Answer: A 112. Minimum wage is more often ______ for teenagers than for other members of the labor forces. A. Advantageous B. Abusive C. Non-binding D. Binding Answer: D 113. When minimum wage rises, some teenagers who are still attending school choose to: A. Stay in school because their parents can now easily pay B. Drop out and take jobs C. Result to underground employment D. Have a part-time job Answer: B 114. When tenants get lower rents, they: A. The price is not in equilibrium B. They have smaller houses C. Are satisfied D. Also get lower-quality housing Answer: D 115. Which is not a step for analyzing supply and demand? A. Decide whether the law affects the supply curve or demand curve B. Decide which way the curve shifts C. Examine how the shift affects equilibrium price and quantity D. Decide whether the supply and demand curves are elastic or inelastic Answer: D 116. 10 percent increase in the minimum wage increases teenage employment between 1 and 3 percent. A. True B. False Answer: B 117. The only difference between taxes on sellers and taxes on buyers is: A. Whose curve is more inelastic B. Who benefits more C. Who sends the money to the government D. Who leaves faster from the market Answer: C 118. The elasticity measures the willingness of buyers or sellers to leave the market when: A. Conditions improve B. Prices inflate C. Conditions become unfavorable D. The tax is too big Answer: C 119. Taxes levied on sellers and taxes levied on buyers are equivalent. A. True B. False Answer: A 120. Two roles of economists: as policy advisors, they develop and test their theories to explain the world around them. As policy advisers, they use their theories to help change the world for the better. A. True B. False Answer: A 121. When policymakers set prices by legal decree, they improve the signals that normally guide the allocation of society’s resources. A. True B. False Answer: B 122. The amount that shows up as a deduction on your pay stub is the: A. Worker’s tax B. Worker’s burden C. Worker contribution D. Employee tax Answer: A 123. A price ceiling set above equilibrium price is: A. Non-binding B. Binding C. Effective D. Distorting Answer: A 124. The total tax revenue collected by the government equals: A. Tax × Quantity sold B. Price × Demand C. Income × Rate D. Tax ÷ Output Answer: A 125. A policy that reduces market efficiency but improves equality is an example of: A. Trade-off B. Subsidy C. Equilibrium D. Elasticity Answer: A 126. Which of the following represents an indirect tax? A. VAT B. Income tax C. Property tax D. Wealth tax Answer: A 127. A perfectly inelastic supply curve means sellers: A. Cannot change quantity supplied B. Respond quickly to price C. Increase output easily D. Are very flexible Answer: A 128. When supply is elastic, a small fall in price causes: A. Large fall in quantity supplied B. Small rise in quantity supplied C. No change D. Constant supply Answer: A 129. In economics, equilibrium means: A. No tendency to change B. Constant rise in price C. Increasing supply D. Surplus in market Answer: A 130. A fall in demand while supply remains constant leads to: A. Lower price B. Higher price C. Constant price D. Excess supply Answer: A 131. When the government sets a minimum price, it is called: A. Price floor B. Price ceiling C. Subsidy D. Tax rate Answer: A 132. If the equilibrium price of rice is ₦500 and government fixes ₦400, the result is: A. Shortage B. Surplus C. Stability D. Inflation Answer: A 133. Elasticity less than 1 means: A. Inelastic B. Unit elastic C. Elastic D. Perfectly elastic Answer: A 134. The slope of the demand curve is generally: A. Negative B. Positive C. Zero D. Infinite Answer: A 135. Inflation reduces the purchasing power of: A. Money B. Labour C. Capital D. Exports Answer: A 136. Which is not a type of inflation? A. Demand-pull B. Cost-push C. Structural D. Informal Answer: D 137. Unemployment occurs when: A. People willing to work cannot find jobs B. Firms make high profits C. Demand for goods rises D. Workers change jobs freely Answer: A 138. Frictional unemployment is caused by: A. Job transition period B. Low education C. Economic recession D. Technological change Answer: A 139. The total value of all goods and services produced within a country is: A. GDP B. GNP C. NDP D. NNP Answer: A 140. National income is measured using: A. Income, Output, and Expenditure methods B. Supply, Demand, and Cost methods C. Labour, Capital, and Tax methods D. Import and Export values Answer: A 141. The circular flow of income describes: A. Movement of income and spending between sectors B. Exchange of foreign currency C. Money growth in banks D. Movement of goods abroad Answer: A 142. In the circular flow model, households supply: A. Factors of production B. Goods and services C. Imports D. Taxes only Answer: A 143. Leakage in the circular flow includes: A. Savings, taxes, imports B. Exports, investment, government spending C. Production, demand, price D. Consumption, income, labour Answer: A 144. A barter economy means: A. Goods exchanged for goods B. Use of money C. Government control D. No market Answer: A 145. The main problem of barter is: A. Lack of double coincidence of wants B. Price stability C. Overproduction D. Inflation Answer: A 146. Money overcomes the problems of: A. Barter trade B. Taxation C. Inflation D. Shortage Answer: A 147. Which is not a function of money? A. Store of value B. Medium of exchange C. Unit of account D. Source of credit Answer: D 148. Financial institutions are classified into: A. Banking and non-banking B. Public and private C. Domestic and foreign D. Retail and wholesale Answer: A 149. The Central Bank controls: A. Money supply B. Company profits C. Labour unions D. Imports only Answer: A 150. Commercial banks create money through: A. Credit creation B. Taxation C. Currency printing D. Exchange rate Answer: A 151. Inflation rate is usually measured by: A. Consumer Price Index (CPI) B. GDP growth rate C. Unemployment ratio D. Money supply Answer: A 152. Deflation refers to: A. Continuous fall in prices B. Rise in prices C. Price stability D. Wage increase Answer: A 153. The Phillips Curve shows the relationship between: A. Inflation and unemployment B. Demand and supply C. Output and imports D. Wages and exports Answer: A 154. Full employment means: A. No involuntary unemployment B. Every citizen is employed C. Zero unemployment D. Government jobs only Answer: A 155. A business cycle refers to: A. Periodic fluctuations in economic activity B. Daily stock market movements C. Steady growth in GDP D. Inflation alone Answer: A 156. The expansion phase of a business cycle is marked by: A. Rising output and employment B. Falling income C. Economic depression D. High unemployment Answer: A 157. Fiscal policy refers to: A. Government spending and taxation B. Money supply control C. Exchange rate management D. Bank regulation Answer: A 158. Public finance deals with: A. Government revenue and expenditure B. Household budgets C. Private investment D. Corporate loans Answer: A 159. Direct taxes include: A. Income tax B. VAT C. Excise duty D. Sales tax Answer: A 160. A budget deficit occurs when: A. Expenditure > Revenue B. Revenue > Expenditure C. Income = Expenditure D. Tax = Spending Answer: A 161. A balanced budget means: A. Government income equals spending B. Surplus in trade C. Low inflation D. Equal exports and imports Answer: A 162. International trade allows countries to: A. Specialize and gain comparative advantage B. Avoid exchange C. Reduce production D. Produce all goods themselves Answer: A 163. Absolute advantage means: A. Producing more efficiently than others B. Producing everything locally C. Trading without exports D. Equal output with all countries Answer: A 164. Comparative advantage was explained by: A. David Ricardo B. Adam Smith C. Keynes D. Friedman Answer: A 165. Terms of trade measure: A. Ratio of export prices to import prices B. Balance of payment C. GDP ratio D. Foreign reserve level Answer: A 166. Developing countries often face: A. Low income and high unemployment B. High technology C. Industrial surplus D. Balanced growth Answer: A 167. Economic development focuses on: A. Long-term improvement in living standards B. Price control C. Short-term profits D. Political gains Answer: A 168. One indicator of economic development is: A. Per capita income B. Inflation rate C. Tax ratio D. Money supply Answer: A 169. Which of the following reduces economic growth? A. High corruption B. Education C. Investment D. Trade openness Answer: A 170. Human capital includes: A. Education, health, and skills B. Machines C. Buildings D. Natural resources Answer: A 171. Developing economies often depend on: A. Primary production B. Industrial exports C. Financial services D. Technology goods Answer: A 172. One feature of developing countries is: A. High population growth B. Low unemployment C. Advanced infrastructure D. Stable income distribution Answer: A 173. Which policy aims at long-term growth? A. Development planning B. Price ceiling C. Wage control D. Devaluation Answer: A 174. Import substitution encourages: A. Domestic production of goods B. Heavy imports C. Currency depreciation D. Trade deficit Answer: A 175. Structural unemployment occurs due to: A. Technological changes B. Holiday periods C. Seasonal jobs D. Inflation Answer: A 176. A progressive tax means: A. Higher income, higher tax rate B. Equal tax for all C. Lower income, higher tax D. Tax on imports Answer: A 177. Regressive tax affects: A. The poor more than the rich B. Only companies C. The rich more than the poor D. Government revenue Answer: A 178. Exchange rate is: A. The price of one currency in terms of another B. Interest on savings C. Inflation measure D. Wage rate Answer: A 179. Balance of payment records: A. All transactions between a country and the rest of the world B. Only exports C. Only imports D. Government budgets Answer: A 180. Devaluation makes exports: A. Cheaper B. Costlier C. Useless D. Unchanged Answer: A 181. An import quota is: A. A limit on quantity imported B. A tax on exports C. A subsidy D. A price floor Answer: A 182. Dumping occurs when: A. Goods are sold abroad below cost price B. Imports exceed exports C. Firms close down D. Government intervenes Answer: A 183. Tariffs are imposed to: A. Protect local industries B. Encourage imports C. Reduce tax revenue D. Support inflation Answer: A 184. Foreign aid can promote: A. Development B. Inflation C. Overproduction D. Corruption only Answer: A 185. Economic planning means: A. Government deliberate control of economic activities B. Free market C. Monopoly power D. Random growth Answer: A 186. Gross National Product (GNP) = A. GDP + Net income from abroad B. GDP − Imports C. GDP + Government spending D. GDP − Taxes Answer: A 187. Net National Product (NNP) = A. GNP − Depreciation B. GDP + Imports C. GDP + Inflation D. GNP + Savings Answer: A 188. Disposable income = A. Personal income − Taxes B. National income + Tax C. GDP ÷ Population D. Wage + Rent Answer: A 189. If imports > exports, the result is: A. Trade deficit B. Trade surplus C. Balance of payment D. Inflation Answer: A 190. The invisible hand concept was proposed by: A. Adam Smith B. David Ricardo C. Karl Marx D. Keynes Answer: A 191. Keynes emphasized: A. Government intervention B. Free market forces C. International trade only D. Privatization Answer: A 192. Classical economists believed in: A. Self-regulating markets B. Government control C. Fiscal stimulus D. Fixed prices Answer: A 193. A recession is defined as: A. Decline in GDP for two consecutive quarters B. One month drop in prices C. Rapid inflation D. High exports Answer: A 194. Depression is: A. Severe and prolonged recession B. Temporary fall in income C. Sudden rise in tax D. Currency appreciation Answer: A 195. Economic growth is measured by: A. Increase in real GDP B. Population growth C. Rise in money supply D. Price index Answer: A 196. One cause of inflation is: A. Too much money chasing few goods B. Reduced demand C. Increased productivity D. Balanced trade Answer: A 197. When government spending exceeds income, it borrows by issuing: A. Bonds B. Tariffs C. VAT D. Subsidies Answer: A 198. Public debt refers to: A. Total borrowing by the government B. Household loans C. Corporate debt D. Foreign remittances Answer: A 199. The dual-sector model of development was proposed by: A. W. Arthur Lewis B. Adam Smith C. John Keynes D. Karl Marx Answer: A 200. Sustainable development focuses on: A. Meeting present needs without harming future generations B. Short-term profit C. Trade surplus D. Tax increase Answer: A

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